REHABILITATION TECHNICIAN GR II LEATHER WORKS - MEDICAL EDUCATION.pdf (Size: 1.22 MB / Downloads: 0)

194/2014
Maximum: 100 marks
Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes

1.Prosthesis can be of:
(A) Exoskeletal type
(B)Endoskeletal type
(C ) Both
(D)None

2.Madras Foot is a modified form of:
(A) Jaipur foot
(B)SACH foot
(C ) Both
(D)None of the above

3.SACH foot is used :
(A) With shoe
(B)Without shoe
(C ) Both
(D)None

4.Skeleton of SACH foot is:
(A) MCK cushion heel
(B)Keel
(C ) Both
(D)None

5.‘Shore' of MCR refers to :
(A) Durability.
(B)Extensibility
(C ) Compressibility
(D)Fragility

6.The socket of Above Knee Prosthesis is commonly fabricated as :
(A) Cylindrical
(B)Cubical
(C ) Quadrilateral
(D)None

7.Suspension used in Above Knee prosthesis is :
(A) Hip joint with pelvic bond
(B)Silesian band
(C ) Both of the above
(D)None of the above

8.Stubbies is indicated for:
(A) Bilateral Below Knee amputee
(B)Bilateral Above Knee amputee
(C ) Unilateral Below Knee
(D)Unilateral Above Knee

9. Prosthetic foot used by Indian population is:
(A) SACH foot
(B)Seattle foot
(C ) Jaipur foot
(D)STEN foot

10.Gleno humeral joint is a :
(A) Ball and socket joint
(B)Hinge joint
(C ) Pivot joint
(D)Saddle joint

11.Claw hand deformity occurs in lesions of:
(A) Median Nerve
(B)Radial Nerve
(C ) Ulnar Nerve
(D)Tibial Nerve

12.Blood pressure is measured by :
(A) Pulseoximeter
(B)goniometer
(C ) Sphygmomanometer
(D)Manometer

13.Toe drag or steppage gait is due to weakness of:
(A) Intrinsics foot
(B)Quadriceps
(C ) Plantar flexors
(D)Dorsiflexors

14.Motor nerve to muscles of facial expression is:
(A) Facial
(B)Trigeminal
(C ) Oculomotor
(D)Abducent

15.In gait cycle stance phase constitutes :
(A) 30%
(B)40%
(C ) 50%
(D)60%

16.Milwaukee Brace refers to a :
(A) CO
(B)CTO 
(C ) CTLSO
(D)LSO

17.The foot commonly used in symes amputation is:
(A) Jaipur
(B)SACH
(C ) Modified SACH
(D)None of the above

18. Thermosetting plastics :
(A) Softens on reheating
(B)Hardens on heating
(C )' Does not soften on cooling
(D)Does not harden on heating

19.Muenster prosthesis is indicated in :
(A) Above elbow amputee
(B)Below elbow amputee
(C ) Above knee amputee
(D)Below knee amputee

20.Subtalar joint refers to :
(A) Talocalcaneal
(B)Talocuboid
(C ) Talocuneiform
(D)Talonavicular

21.The following arc parts of a Transtibial prosthesis except:
(A) Socket
(B)Shank
(C ) Supracondylar suspension
(D)Knee joint

22.Below Knee prosthesis with thigh corset is indicated in
(A) Ultra short BK
(B)Unhealthy stump
(C ) All of the above
(D)None of the above

23.During gait cycle initial floor contact is by the :
(A) Toes
(B)Heel
(C ) Mid foot
(D)Fore foot

24.Supracondylar cuff suspension is used in:
(A) Above knee prosthesis
(D)Below knee prosthesis
(C ) Above elbow prosthesis
(D)Below elbow prosthesis

25.The increase in muscle tone in upper motor neuron lesions is referred to as :
(A) Flaccidity
(B)Rigidity 
(C ) Spasticity
(D)None of the above

26.Least mobile portion of the spinal column is :
(A) Cervical
(B)Lumbar
(C ) Thoracic
(D)Sacral

27. Medial winging of scapula is produced by paralysis of:
(A)Trapezius
(B)Rhomboids
(C )Latissimus dorsi
(D)Serratus anterior

28.Intervertebral disc consists of all of the following except:
(A)Nucleus pulposus
(B)Semilinar cartilage
(C )Annulus fibrosus
(D)End plate

29.Floor reaction orthosis:
(A)Used in quadriceps insufficiency
(B)Is made in equinus
(C )Gait starts with fore foot srike
(D)All of the above

30.Motion at the ankle is :
(A)Inversion and eversion
(B)Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
(C )Abduction and adduction
(D)All of these

31.Metatarsal break refers to :
<A)Axis overlying four MTP joints
(B)Break in the metatarsal bone
(C )Base of phalanges
(D)Base of Meta Tarsal bones

32.Brachialisis a primaryof elbow joint.
(A)Abductor
(B)Adductor
(C )Flexor
(D)Extensor

33.Intrinsic muscles have:
(A)Origin and insertion in hand
(B)Have intrinsic nerve supply
(C )Have same insertion
(D)Have same nerve supply

34.Movements occurring at subtalar joint is :
(A)Dorsilexion and Plantar Flexion
(B)Inversion and eversion
(C )Abduction and Adduction
(D)Rotations

35.Functional disabilities of amputees is described by :
(A) F classification
(B)K classification
(C ) D classification
(D)A classification

36.Gait cycle.consists of activity from :
(A)Heel strike of one foot to heel strike of the same foot 
(B)Heel st rike of one foot to heel strike of the other foot
(C )Heel strike of one foot to toe off of same foot 
(D)Heel strike of one foot to toe off of other foot

37.Voluntary muscle activity is brought by :
(A) Skeletal muscles
(B)Smooth muscles
(C ) All of the above
(D)None of the above

38.The nerve in close association with head of fibulais:
(A) Tibial
(B)Sciatic
(C ) Common peroneal
(D)Ulnar

39.There arespinal nerves.
(A) 30
(B)31
(C ) 32
(D)33

40.Rickets is due to deficiency of:
(A) Vitamin A
(B)Vitamin B
(C ) Vitamin C
(D)Vitamin D

41.Humans havegait.
(A) Bipedal
(B)Quadriped
(C ) Tripod
(D)None of these

42.Hip disarticulation prosthesis is indicated in :
(A) True hip disarticulation
(B)Knee disarticutation
(C ) Above knee amputation
(D)Forequarter amputation

43. Cadence refers to :
(A) Terminal swing
(B)Width of base of support
(C ) Degree of toe out
(D)No. of steps per minute

44.Dennis Browne splint is used in :
(A) CDH
(B)Pes planus
(C ) CTEV
(D)Congenital limb deficiency

45.Fixed Ankle Joint is indicated in :
(A) Weight relieving orthosis
(B)In mobile ankle
(C ) Conventional orthosis
(D)Flail lower limb

46.The no. of tarsal hones in human foot is :
(A) 5
(B)6
(C ) 7
(D)8

47.Reverse Thomas Heel is indicated in
(A) Pes planus
(B)CTEV
(C ) Equinovarus
(D)Valgus

48.SACH foot is:9
(A) Soft, ankle cushion heel
(B)Solid ankle cuffed heel
(C ) Solid ankle cellular heel
(D)Solid ankle cushion heel

49.Symes amputation is:
(A) End bearing stump
(B)Proximal weight bearing stump
(C ) Weight relieving stump
(D)None of the above

50.All are Dynamic response foot except:
(A) Scatle foot
(B)SACH
(C ) Carbon copy
(D)Flex foot

51.Polyarthritis in rheumatoid arthritis first affects•
(A) Spine
(B)Large joints
(C ) Small peripheral joints
(D)All of these

52.Muscle weakness in poliomyelitis is :
(A) symmetrical
(B)asymmetrical
(C ) all of these
(D)none of these

53.MCR insole is indicated in :
(A) Neuropathic foot
(B)Painful foot
(C ) Both
(D)None

54.Chopart amputation is:
(A) Tarsometatarsal
(B)Transmetatarsal
(C ) Midtarsal
(D)Talocrural

55.The following are parts of axillary crutches except:
(A) Axillary pad
(B)Uprights
(C ) Hand grip
(D)Forearm band

56.External knee joint is used in:
(A) Above knee prosthesis
(B)Through knee prosthesis
(C ) PTB prosthesis
(D)Symes Prosthesis

57.The minimum percentage of disability to getthe benefits of disabled is :
(A) 50%
(B)45%
(C ) 40%
(D)60%

58.Terminal device is part of:
(A) lower limb orthosis
(B)upper limb orthosis
(C ) lower limb prosthesis
(D)upper limb prosthesis

59.Pressure tolerant areas in PTB socket are :
(A)  Patellar tendon
(B)Pretibial muscles
(C ) Popliteal fossa
(D)All of the above

60.Polycentric knee provides all except:
(A) Stability
(B)Swing control
(C ) Light weight
(D)low cost

61.Phantom sensation is:
(A) non painful sensation
(B)decreases with time
(C ) all of the above
(D)none of the above

62.Gait deviation in trans femoral amputee includes:
(A) Lateral trunk bending
(B)Abducted gait
(C ) Circumduction
(D)All of the above

63.Lofstrand crutches have all except:
(A) Forearm cuff
(B)Moulded hand piece
(C ) Single aluminium shaft
(D)Axillary piece

64.low temperature thermoplastics :
(A)moulded at temperature just above body temperature
(B)does not need cast
(C )main use in upper limb orthotics
(D)all of the above

65.Swedish knee cage :
(A) prevents genu recurvatum
(B)prevents knee flexion
(C ) controls axial rotation
(D)extends up to ankle

66.Camber refers to:
(A) wheel angle against vertical axis
(B)pneumatic tires
(C ) front wheels
(D)antitippers

67.Metals commonly used in orthosis arc all except:
(A) steel
(B)aluminium
(C ) titanium alloys
(D)iron

68. SOMI is :
(A)sterno occipital mandibular immobilizer
(B)poster type CTO
(C )cannot be applied in supine position
(D)used in unstable fracture

69. Taylor brace is :
(A) CTLSO
(B)TLSO
(C ) LSO
(D)SO

70.Milwaukee brace is indicated in :
(A) Scoliosis
(B)Kyphosis
(C ) Osteoporosis
(D)Compression fracture

71.Ischial containment applies to :
(A)Transtibial prosthesis
(B)Transradial prosthesis
(C )Transhumeral prosthesis
(D)Transfemoral prosthesis

72.A stretch or tear of muscle fibres is :
(A) Strain
(B)Sprain
(C ) Stress
(D)String

73.Tennis elbow refers to :
(A) Medial epicondylitis
(B)Lateral epicondylitis 
(C ) Tendonitis
(D)Synovitis

74.Shock absorbers of the knee is :
(A) Collateral ligaments
(B)Menisci
(C ) Cruciate ligaments
(D)Synovium

75.Aeroplane splint is used in injury to :
(A) Radial nerve
(B)Brachial plexus 
(C ) Median nerve
(D)Axillary nerve

76. Alignment refers to :
(A)Relationship of different parts of profitheses to each other
(B)Relationship of socket to stump
(C ) Relationship of socket and stump to body
(D) Relationship of gravity and loading

77.Motorised wheel chairs are indicated in— quadriplegics.
(A) C4
(B)C5C5
(C ) C6
(D)C7C7

78.KAFO is indicated in :
(A) Gluteus medius weakness
(B)Hamstring weakness
(C ) Quadriceps weakness
(D)Hiopsoas weakness

79.Bells palsy refers to:
(A) Lesion of 12th cranial nerve
(B)Lesion of 5th cranial nerve
(C ) lesion of 7th cranial nerve
(D)Lesion of 10th cranial nerve

80.Clinical components in club foot is :
(A) cavus, adductus, calcaneus varus
(B)pesplanus, adductus. equinus, valgus
(C ) cavus, adductus, varus, equinus
(D)pesplanus adductus, equinus ,varus

81.Who is the 159th member of WTO?
(A) Kazakhstan
(B)Laos
(C ) Tajikistan
(D)Uzbekistan

82.Among the union territories the female literacyis highest according to Census 2011 :
(A) Puducherry
(B)Chandigarh
(C ) Daman Diu
(D)Lakshadweep

83.The present Governor of Reserve bank of India iis:
(A) D. SubbaRao
(B)Reghuram Rajan
(C ) Y.V. Reddy
(D)Kangarajan

84.Who is the founder of Sadhujana Paripalana Yogam?
(A) Ayyankali
(B)Vaghbatananda
(C ) Chattambiswamikal
(D)Vaikundaswamikal

85.Which is the birth place of Chattambiswamikal?
(A) Karappuzha
(B)Chembazhanthy
(C ) Aruvippuram
(D)Kannammoola

86.The biggest district in Kerala is :
(A) Idukki
(B)Thissur
(C ) Palakkad
(D)Kollam

87.First Education Minister of Kerala :
(A) T.M. Jacob
(B)E.T. Mohammed Basheer
(C ) C.H. Mohammed Koya
(D)Joseph Mundassery

88.Longest river in Kerala :•-
(A) Periyar
(B)Bharathappuzha
(C ) Pamba
(D)Kabani

89.Supreme commander of Armed Forces in India :
(A) Prime Minister
(B)President
(C ) Loksabha Speaker
(D)Vice president

90.In which State is the Golden Temple situated?
(A) Punjab
(B)Odisha
(C ) Rajasthan
(D)Gujarat

91.The highest mountain peak in India :
(A) Everest
(B)Nandadevi
(C ) Anamudi
(D)K2

92.Who is the Chairman of planning commission of India?
(A) Attorney General
(B)Prime Minister
(C ) Advocate General
(D)Finance Minister

93. What is the importance of the date 13th April 1919?
(A) Salt Sathyagraha
(B)JallianWallabhag massacre
(C ) Non-co-operation movement
(D)Simon Commission

94.Who declared the Partition of Bengal?
(A)Lord Rippon
(B)Lord Canning
(C ) Lord Mount Batten
(D)Lord Curson

95.The First President of Indian National Congress is :
(A) W.C. Banerjee
(B)A.O Hume
(C ) Mahathma Gandhi
(D)Jawaharlal Nehru

96.An important type of soil in India :
(A) Alluvial soil
(B)Laterite soil
(C ) Red soil
(D)Black soil

97.Under whose reign slave trade in Travancore was abolised :
(A) Swarthy Thirunal
(B)Sree Chithira Thirunal
(C ) Rani Gouri Lakshmi Bhai
(D)Marthanda Varma

98.Which of the following was not associatedwith Gandhiji?
(A) Bardoli Sathyagraha
(B)Champaran movement
(C ) Bhoodan movement
(D)Kheda Sathyagraha

99.The Samadhi place of Tndira Gandhi:
(A) Shakthisthal
(B)Santhivanam
(C ) Rajghat
(D)Vijayghat

100.Loksabha passed the national Food Security Bill, 2013on:
(A) August 22
(B)August 24
(C ) August 26
(D)August 27