ASSISTANT ENGINEER - UNITED ELECTRICAL INDUSTRIES LTD.pdf (Size: 1.68 MB / Downloads: 4)

Time : 1 hour and 15 minutes
Category:005/2016


1. Kirchhoffs Voltage Law (KVL) is a restatement of:
(A) Principle of conservation of charge (B) Principle of conservation of energy
(C ) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

2. If the number of turns of a coil is doubled, its inductance :
(A) Decreases two times (B) Decreases four times
(C ) Increases two times (D) Increases four times

3. Two batteries having emfs of 10 V and 7 V and internal resistances 2 Ω and 3 Ω
respectively are connected in parallel across a load of resistance of 1 Ω
. The current drawn by the load is :
(A) 3 A (B) 1A
(C ) 4 A (D) 2 A

4. A square coil of 10 cm side and with 100 turns is rotated at a uniform speed of 1000 revolutions per minute about an axis at right angles to a uniform magnetic field having a flux density of 0.5 wb/m2. The instantaneous value of induced emf when the plane of the coil is parallel to the plane of the field is :
(A) Zero (B) 25.3 V
(C ) 52.3 V (D) 40.5 V


5.In an RLC series circuit, voltage in the circuit is : R=20Ω, XL =4Ω and Xc = 6Ω. The current is 5 A. The applied
(A) 14.14 V (B) 10.44V
(C ) 141.4 V (D) 1.414 V


6. A current of 10 A flows in a circuit with 30° angle of lag when the applied voltage is 100 V. The resistance, reactance and impedance are :
(A) 8.666 Ω
Ω
, 5 Ω
, 10 Ω
(B) 10 Ω
, 5 Ω
, 0.866 Ω

(C ) 10 Ω, 0.866 Ω, 5 Ω (D) 0.866 Ω, 10 ft, 5 D

7. A wire is placed parallel to the lines of force in a magnetic field and a current flows in this wire. Then :
(A) The wire experiences a force in the direction of the magnetic field
(B) The wire docs not experience any force
(C ) The wire experiences a force in a direction opposite to the magnetic field
(D) The wire experiences a force in a direction perpendicular to the magnetic field 


7.if a 10 Ω resistance is connected to an a.c. supply v = 100sin(314t+37) V, the power dissipated by the resistance is :
(A) 10,000 W (B) 1000 W
(C ) 250 W (D) 500 W

8.A three phase, four wire 100 V (L-L) system supplies a balanced star connected load having impedance of 10l-30* Ω in each phase. How much current is flowing through the neutral?
(B) 1A (D) 5.77 A


10. If To is the torque and /a  the armature current for a DC series motor, which of the following relation is valid, after core saturation?
1

(C ) T0 ∝1/r


11. The permissible flux density of cold rolled grain oriented steel used for transformer core is around :
(A) 1.7 wb/m3 (B) 2.7 wb/m2
(C ) 3.5 wb/m2 (D) 0.5 wb/m2

12. The nameplate of an energy meter reads   1 KWh = 15,000 revolutions’. If the meter completes 150 revolutions during 50 seconds, what is the power in the circuit?
(A) 100 W (B) 720 W
(C ) 600 W (D)  1000 W


13. An ammeter with full scale deflection current of 100 A (micro ampere) and internal resistance of 100 is required to measure a maximum current of 10 maA. The shunt resistance value is:
(A) 1.10 (B) 1.01 Ω

(C ) 1.11 Ω
(D) 1.00 Ω

14. If the moving coil of a voltmeter consists of 100 turns around on a square former which has a length of 30 mm and flux density in the air gap is 0.09 wb/m2. The deflecting torque on the coil when carrying a current of 10 mA is :
(A) 27 x 10-6 Nm (B) 8.1 x 10-6 Nm
(C ) 2.7 x 10-6 Nm (D) 81 x 10-6 Nm

15. A 5 A. 230 V meter on full load, unity power factor test makes 72 revolutions in 360 seconds If the normal disc speed is 600 rev/KWh, what is the percentage error?
(A) 0.12% (B) 1.2%
(C ) 0.434% (D)  4.17% 

16. In a moving iron instrument, the deflection torque, Td is :
(A) Directly proportional to square of current
(B) Inversely proportional to square of current
(C ) Directly proportional to current
(D) Inversely proportional to current

17. Inductance affects the direct current (d.c.) flow :
(A) only at the time of turning off (B) only at the time of turning on
(C ) at the time of turning on and off (D) at all the time of operation

18. For a sine wave with peak value Emax, the average value is :
(A) 0.636 (B) 0.707
(C ) 0.434 Emax (D) 1.414 Emax


19. The ratio of starting torque to full load torque is least in :
(A) DC scries motor (B) DC shunt motor
(C ) DC compound motor (D) None of the above

20. The iron core from an iron-cored coil is removed so that it becomes air-cored. The inductance of the coil:
(A) remains the same (B) becomes zero
(C ) decreases (D) increases

21. The forbidden energy band gap for Germanium is :
(A) 0.12 eV (B) 0.32 eV
(C ) 0.72 eV (D) 7.2 eV

22. When the reverse bias is applied to a junction diode :
(A) The minority carrier current is increased
(B) The majority carrier current is increased
(C ) The potential barrier is lowered
(D) The potential barrier is increased

23. In a full-wave rectifier which uses two ideal diodes, the approximate relationship are :
(A) Vdc=Vm/π
-,PIV=2Vm
X
(C ) Vdc=2Vm/π
PIV = Vm
X 

25. Which of the following statement is correct for the basic transistor configurations?
(A) CB configuration has low input impedance and a low current gain
(B) CC configuration has low output impedance and a high voltage gain
(C ) CE configuration has very poor voltage gam but very high input impedance
(D) The current gain of CB configuration is higher than the current gain of CC configuration

26. A Bipolar Junction transistor is said to bo operating in saturation region if
(A) Emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased
(B) Emitter junction is reverse biased and collector junction is forward biased
(C ) Both the junctions are forward biased
(D) Both the junctions are reverse biased

27. Pinch - off voltage of a JFET is :
(A) The gate-to-source voltage at which the drain current starts to saturate
(B) The drain-to-sourcc voltage at which the drain current becomes zero
(C ) The channel-to-gate voltage at which the drain current becomes zero
(D) The channel-to-gate reverse bias voltage at which the drain current starts to saturate

28. The best material for the gate region construction of a MOSFET is :
(A) High purity silicon (B) High purity silica
(C ) Epitaxial grown silicon (D) Heavily doped polycrystalline silicon

29. The common-emitter short circuit current gain p of a BJT :
(A) Is a monotonically increasing function of lc
(B) Is a monotonically decreasing function of lr
(C ) Increases with /c for low values of  Ic reaches a maximum and then decreases with further increase in lc
(D) Is not a function of lc

30. For full-wave rectification, a four-diode bridge rectifier is claimed to have the following advantages over a two-diode circuit:
(1) Less expensive transformer 
(2) Smaller size transformer and 
(3) Suitability for higher voltage application 
Of these 
(A) Only (1) and (2) are true (B) Only (1) and (3) are true
(C ) Only (2) and (3) are true (D) (1), (2) and (3) are true


31. A 1 MHz sinusoidal carrier wave is amplitude modulated by a sine wave of period 100 μ
s. Which of the following frequencies will not be present in the modulated output signal?
(A) 990 KHz (B) 1000 KHz
(C ) 1010 KHz (D) 1020 KHz 
(A) Less negative feedback (B) Greater input impedance
(C ) More bandwidth (D) None of these

33. The image frequency of the AM super heterodyne i receiver when it is tuned to receive a radio
station operating at 628 KHz is : 
(A) 1538 KHz (B) 1256 KHz
(C ) 1083 KHz (D) 855.5 KHz

34. A 741 type op-amp has a gain bandwidth product of 1 1 MHz. A non-inverting amplifier using
this op-amp and having a voltage gain of 20 dB will exhibit a -3dB bandwidth of:
(A) 50 KHz (B) 100 KHz
(C ) KHz (D) 1000/70.7KHz
17 70.7

35. How many number of NOR gates are required to realise an AND function?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C ) 4 (D) 5

36. Simplified form of the logic expression : 
(X + Y + Z)(X + Y¯ + Z) (X +¯Y-¯Z) 
(A) X (B) XY + ¯Z
(C ) X +Y¯Z (D) ¯XY + ¯Z

37. The C - band is : 
(A) 1 to 2 GHz (B) 2 to -4 GHz
(C ) 4 to 8 GHz (D) 8 to 12 GHz

38. If D is the distance between two co-channel cells and R is the cell radius, then is known

32. Two non-inverting amplifiers, one having a unity gain and the other having a gain of 10, are made using identical operational amplifiers As compared to the unity gain amplifier, the amplifier circuit with gain 10 has :

as:
(A) Co-channel interference reduction factor
(B) Adjacent channel interference reduction factor
(C ) Adjacent and co-channel interference reduction factor
(D) None of these

39. The cell using different carrier frequencies in a cluster is :
(A) Co-channel cell (B) Adjacent cell
(C ) Micro cell (D) Macro cell

40. Which of the following is the correct statement in connection with satellite communication?
(A) A satellite is stationary in the outer - space
(B) Co-located earth stations are used for frequency diversity
(C ) Satellites are allocated so that it is impossible for two earth stations not to face the same satellite
(D) A satellite earth station must have as many receiver chains as there are carriers transmitted to it 


11. Two forces of equal magnitude P' act at an angle '0' to each other. Their resultant will be :
(B) 2Pcosᶲ/2

(D) Psin ᶲ/2

2

42. The unit of energy in SI system of units is :
(A) watt (B) dyne
(C ) joule (D) kg-m

43. The moment of inertia of a thin disc of mass 'm' and radius ‘r', about an axis passing through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to the plane of the disc is :
(A) 0.5 mr2 (B) mr2
(C ) 0.25 mr2 (D) 2 mr2

44. The ratio of limiting friction to the normal reaction between the two bodies is defined as :
(A) Sliding friction (B) Angle of friction
(C ) Friction of resistance (D) Coefficient of friction

45. The loss of kinetic energy during the impact of collision of two inelastic bodies (mass m2, velocities = U1 ,U2) is given by :

47. If the momentum of a given body is doubled, its kinetic energy will:
(A) Increase by four times (B) Increase by two times
(C ) Increase by eight times (D) Gets halved

48. For a given velocity of projectile, the horizontal range will be maximum when angle of projection with the horizontal is :
(A) 15° (B) 30°
(C ) 60° (D) 90°
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49. For a compound pendulum with distance 'h' from the point of suspension ‘O’ and a radius of gyration ‘kc' about an axis through the centre of gravity and perpendicular to the plane of motion, the periodic time (tp) is given by :
2Π
2Π

50. The force acting on a body when rotates along the radius of a circular path and is always directed towards the centre of the path :
(A) Centrifugal force (B) Centripetal force
(C ) Shear force (D) Moment of force

51. Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable electrode?
(A) MIG welding (B) LASER welding
(C ) Atomic hydrogen welding (D) Plasma welding

52. A casting method which produces castings within very close tolerances (± 0.05 mm) and do not require further machining is known as :
(A) Permanent mould casting (B) Slush casting
(C ) Centrifugal casting (D) Investment casting

53. A forging method in which only a small portion of the part is deformed at any particular time and can be applied only to circular products is called :
(A) Wobble forging (B) Rotary forging
(C ) Cored forging (D) Drop forging

54. In which of the following non conventional machining process, the material is removed by using abrasive Slurry between the tool and work :
(A) Electric-discharge Machining (B) Electro Chemical machining
(C ) Ultrasonic machining (D) Electric discharge grinding

55. Which one of the following is an operation of producing flat surface at an angle to the axis of the cutter?
(A) Angular or bevel milling (B) Plain or slab milling
(C ) Helical or slab milling (D) Face milling

56. The relationship between the tool life (T) in minutes and cutting speed (V) in m/min is given by :
(A) VT" = C (B) VnT = C
V
(C ) V/Tn=C
(
Where n = an exponent depending on tool and work piece and C = constant
9 005/2016
[P.T.O.J
 
57. In n lathe, which one of the following is used to hold hollow work pieces to machine their
external surface:
(A) Chucks (B) Mandrels
(C ) Centers (D) Lathe dog or Carrier

58. If ‘ FC’ is the total fixed cost,  'VC' is the variable cost per unit and ‘SP’ is the selling price per unit, then Brake Even Point (BEP) in terms of sales revenue is equal to:
(A) FC (B) FC
, VC
1+SP

(C ) FC (D) FC
l-SP/VC
VC 
1-VC/ SP


59. If ‘ D' is the annual demnnd in units, ‘C’ is the order cost and ' H' is the holding cost per unit per year, then the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is equal to :
(A) sqrt(2C/DH) (B) 2 CD
H
(C ) sqrt(2CH/DH) (D) 2 H
D CD


60. Which one of the following layout is suitable for continuous production?
(A) Process layout (B) Product layout
(C ) Mixed layout (D) Static layout

61. A closed system is one in which :
(A) Ileat and work crosses the boundary of the system but mass does not crosses the boundary
(B) Both heat and work as well as mass crosses the boundary of the system
(C ) Mass crosses the boundary of the system but heat and work does not crosses the boundary
(D) Neither the heat and work nor the mass crosses the boundary of the system

62. In a vapour compression refrigeration system before entering the throttle valve, the refrigerant is in the form of:
(A) Superheated vapour (B) Wet vapour
(C ) High pressure saturated liquid (D) Dry vapour

63. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum when :
(A) Initial temperature is 0CK
(B) Final temperature is 0°K
(C ) Difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K
(D) Keeping the final temperature constant 

64. In SI system of units. One tonne of refrigeration is taken as equivalent to (A) 210kJ/min (B) 2100kJ/min
(C ) 3.5 kW (D) 35 kW

67. The head against which a centrifugal pump has to work is known as
(A) Static head (B) Total head
(C ) Net positive suction head (D) Manometric head

68. The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when :
(A) The velocity of the wheel is half the velocity of the jet of water at inlet
(B) The velocity of the wheel is double the velocity of the jet of water at inlet
(C ) The velocity of the wheel is equal to the velocity of the jet of water at inlet
(D) The velocity' of the wheel is three fourth of the velocity of the jet of water at inlet

69. The power transmitted by the belt is maximum when the maximum tension in the belt is :
(A) Equal to the centrifugal tension (B) Two times the centrifugal tension
(C ) Three times the centrifugal tension (D) Four times the centrifugal tension

70. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion between two shafts whose axes are :
(A) Non-intersecting and non parallel
(B) Parallel and coplanar
(C ) Non-coplanar
(D) Non-parallel or intersecting but coplanar

71. In levelling, the reading is taken on a staff held at a point of known elevat ion of 123.45 m, the staff reading is recorded as 1.875 m. The height of instrument is :
(A) 1.875 m (B) 121.575 m
(C ) 123.46 m ((D) 125.325 m
According to TS: 1904-1986, the minimum depth of foundation below natural ground surface should be : 

73. Early gain of strength of cement is due to :
(A) C3S
(C ) C3A

74. Which of the following is responsible for most, of undesirable properties of concrete?
(A) C3S (B) C2S
(C ) C3A (D) C1AF

75. In members where cracking in the tensile zone is harmful either because they are exposed to the effects of weather or continuously exposed to moisture, the limit of maximum cracking width as per IS-456: 2000 is :
(A) 0.3 mm (B) 0.2 mm
(C ) 0.1mm (D) 0.03 mm

76. As per IS 456 -2000. the diameter of the reinforcing bars in slabs shall not exceed :
(A) One eighth of the total thickness of the slab
(B) One tenth of the total thickness of the slab
(C ) One sixth of the total thickness of the slab CD) One fourth of the total thickness of the slab

77. The nominal maximum size of coarse aggregate should be as large as possible within the limits specified but in no case greater than :
(A) One-third the thickness of member
(B) One-fourth the thickness of member
(C ) One-fifth the thickness of member
(D) One-sixth the thickness of member
provided that the concrete can be placed without difficulty so as to surround all the reinforcement

78. In steel structure, the slenderness ratio of lacing bars for compression members shall not exceed :
(A) 90 (B) 250
(C ) 180 (D) 145

79. In anaerobic treatment of wastewater, the formation of methane is through :
(A) Conversion of acetates only
(B) Conversion of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only
(C ) Both acetate and hydrogen
(D) None of the above

80. The incineration of municipal solid wastes may result in the formation of:
(A) Dioxins and Furans (B) Methane
(C ) Chloroflouro carbon (D) None of the above 

81. The most important Article of Indian Constitution is :
(A) Article 32 (B) Article 17
(O Article -12 (D) Article 13

82. The first Non congress Prime Minister of India was :

83. The state-level RTI Acts were first successfully enacted by the state governments of: (A) Tamil Nadu (B) 
Rajasthan(C ) Kerala (D) Delhi

84. In 1887 Sri Narayanaguru was established a Siva temple at:
(A) Chempazhanthi (B) Aruvippuram
(C ) Cherthala (D) Varkala

85. The Guruvayur Sathyngraha was started on (A) 2nd October (C ) 8,h November

86. Ayvankali was started the first School for the lower castes at
The National Food Security Act was passed in : (A) 2003
(C ) 2010
13 

92. AL Hilal was published by :
(A) Sayyid Ahammed Khan (B) Vakkaom Abdul Khadar Moulavi
(C ) Aga Khan (D) Moula Abdul Kalam Azad

93. The Journal '‘Comrade” was published by :
(A) Moulana Mohammed Ali
(B) Vakkaom Abdul Khadar Moulavi (Q Aga Khan
(D) Moula Abdul Kalam Azad

94. Who was the Nizam of Hyderabad during the accession to the Indian Union in the
independence Period?
(A) Muhammed Khan (B) Abdul Itazak
(O Osman Ali Khan (D) Sayyid Ahammed

95. As a part of Bengal Partition 16th day of October 1905 was observed as :
(A) Day of Mourning (B) Day of Dawn
(C ) Day of Morning (D) Day of Partition

96. Bandung Conference was held in 1955 at Bandung in :
(A) Maldives (B) Russia
(C ) Indonesia (D) France

97. The most prominent work on partition “Freedom at Midnight” is written by :
(A) Dominiguc Lapirre (B) Krishna Baldev
(C ) Bhishmasahini (D) Bapsi Sidhwa

98.Operation Vijay was associated with :
(A) Gulf War (B) Kargil Crisis
(C ) Punjab Crisis (D) Assam Turmoil


99. Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966 by and Ayub Khan.
(A) Lal Bhahadur Sastri (B) Indira Gandhi
(C ) Rajiv Gandhi (D) Charan Singh


100. Who wrote Kerala Yesterday, Today and Tomorrow”?
(A) A.K Gopalan (B)
(C ) Nambiar O.K (D)